If you don’t already have Chris Blattman in your reading feeds, might i suggest the add? So, can we replace ln(x) with log(y_{i}+(y_{i}^{2}+1)^{1/2})? Frances Woolley says so. i’m not an economist, so the “auto-reject” from *AER *isn’t an outcome i’m all that concerned about (see CB’s post here). That said, i do find the solution to computing a log-transformation on variables with high likelihood of zero-values an intriguing one. Perhaps, i should have borrowed CB’s preface of “If you know what ln(1+income) is, and why it’s a headache, you should read this post.”

## Is “Inverse Hyperbolic Sine” the new “Ln”?

November 15, 2011
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